THIS POST by
THEOCRATIC JOKER posed some excellent questions for Jehovah's Witnesses to consider regarding
the central doctrine of their faith, 1914 (the date when Christ's rule in heaven was established). These would be great questions to write down and ask if you are involved in a study with the JW's. And I can assure you, they will search long and hard in their WT CD libraries, but will return empty-handed:
1:) No encyclopedia, no history book, and no archaeology book that I have ever seen have EVER said that Nebuchadnezzar destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple in the year 607 BCE. All of the encyclopedias, history books, and archaeological books that I have ever seen say that it happened in 586/587 BCE. What evidence or proof do you have that it happened in 607 BCE?
2:) If ALL of the historians and archaeologists are WRONG about 607 BCE, then how do we know that they are right about ANY other date that the Watchtower Society makes use of in their Publications, such as the year that Cyrus rescued the Jews?
3:) WHY should we START counting when Jerusalem was destroyed? Where does Daniel Chapter 4 say that the prophecy of the Great Tree begins when Jerusalem was destroyed?
4:) WHY should we interpret each "day" as being a "year" ONLY IN THIS CHAPTER OF DANIEL? If the "Day for a Year" is truly a Bible Prophecy Rule, then why shouldn't we apply it to ALL of the prophecies of Daniel? Or ALL of the prophecies in the entire Bible?
5:) Do Jehovah's Witenesses apply the "Day for a Year" Rule to the "42 months", the "1,335 days", or to any other prophecies in the Bible?
6:) Daniel Chapter 4 is about King Nebuchadnezzar (The Great Tree) being "chopped down" (going insane) for 7 LITERAL YEARS. Then being restored as King. That is the ONLY fulfillment that the Bible speaks of. Can you show me using the Scriptures what the evidence or proof is that there was ANOTHER fulfillment?
7:) Where does the Bible say that Jerusalem in Luke 21:24 represents the "typical kingdom of God through its theocratic rulership on earth"? Why couldn't Jerusalem in Luke 21:24 simply mean the city of Jerusalem, the actual CITY?
8:) How do Jehovah's Witnesses jump from Nebuchadnezzar being insane for 7 years to Jesus becoming King in 1914? That is the biggest question of all for all Jehovah's Witnesses. Their entire religious organization and its teachings are based on this!
9:) Where does the Bible say that Jesus would have the legal right to rule ONLY when the appointed times of the nations were fulfilled?
10:) How did Jesus NOT have the legal right already, since He was the Legal and Rightful Heir to King David?
11:) Also, after His Death, Resurrection, and Ascension, the New Testament describes Jesus as already being KING and Jesus Himself said "ALL AUTHORITY in Heaven and on Earth HAS BEEN GIVEN TO ME." So, if ALL AUTHORITY had already been given to Jesus in the year 33 CE, then how could MORE authority be given to him in 1914 CE?
12:) Also, are you aware that Charles Taze Russell used the Pyramids in Egypt to help calculate and confirm the year 1914?
13:) And are you aware that in the 1800's Russell and his associates were preaching that they were all going to be raptured to Heaven in 1914 and that Armageddon would probably happen right after that?
14:) Are you aware that n the 1800's Russell and his associates were teaching that Jesus had ALREADY invisibly returned in 1874!
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5 comments:
Again, silence from the Watchtower defenders. Curious...
The answers to these question are pretty straight forward really. I've thought about them all and have heard similar challenges in the past.
To answer one for example the bible rule a day for a year has been applied where error was found. So the spies for their lack of faith a day of spying was linked to a year of wilderness. Ezekiel the same idea. We understand that the reason why God halted the kings representing himself was for their error. Therefore the rule may be applied here (Ez21:25)
Jonesy, thank you for your comment. I'm failing to see where these texts are to be used as an interpretive "rule" for other texts? Even if its true that these "day for a year" events are in places where error is found, on what basis would you impose this on other texts without any contextual justification?
That is, when "a day for a year" is applied, it is because the context has determined as such. If the context doesn't demand this, then why impose it?
The arrangement for kings in Israel was removed because of their error (Ez21:25 cited earlier). It was Nebuchadnezzar who did the removing. Therefore the events that applied to Nebuchadnezzar regarding the tree are significant.
When I was a boy I used to sit on my fathers lap and steer the car. He was in ultimate control and took back charge when the hedge came too close. God gave the steering wheel to Nebuchadnezzar and allowed gentile nations to take over for just a while.
How long would the nations be in charge ? The root stock had the heart of a beast temporarily until it's un-banding sometime later.
You are creating a rule that does not actually exist. When "a year for a day" punishment is given, it is dictated by the context. There is no basis for imposing this as a rule when there is no contextual application in the text. In other words, you are just making stuff up to fit a flawed, man-made, chronological system of 1914.
The account in Dan. 4 makes perfect sense in light of it's own context and without imposing foreign "year for a day rules" made only to fit the WT's doctrine.
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